What is free will and how does it relate to the call to repentance? This article answers this question.

Source: The Banner of Truth (NRC), 1988. 2 pages.

What Is Free Will?

The need for Clarification🔗

You are undoubtedly aware that language is a highly significant element of human relationships. From your own experience you know that our use of language in communicating with others will either result in establishing or strengthening a relationship, or to the contrary, has the potential of straining or breaking a relationship. Regretfully, we must observe that due to sin, so frequently our use of lan­guage results in the latter. How often our sinful nature manifests itself in our speech, which is the reason why Scripture so frequently addresses the sins we commit with our tongues.

Since the Tower of Babel, however, an additional judgment has come upon sinful man, namely, the confusion of tongues, the consequence of which is that we no longer "understand one another's speech" (Gen. 11:7). Tragically, this judgment is not only to be observed among nations, but also among those who speak the same language in the linguistic sense, or to come to the point, we even observe it in the use of religious language.

Due to improper use or understanding of terminology – which generally is the result of not knowing its correct meaning – we so often do not understand one another's speech, which frequently results in suspicion and bearing false witness about each other. I believe that such is the case with the expression "free will," which is used regularly by many of us to denounce anything which we per­ceive as being contrary to the doctrines of free grace. I fear, however, that many times this expression is used incorrectly, resulting in misunderstanding, confusion, and suspicion.

I believe that also among our young people there are those who are confused about this matter, who, motivated by a heartfelt desire to seek the Lord and search His Word, do not quite know what to think of certain authors and/or sermons. Are they "free-will," or are they scriptural? My young friends, since the answer to this question is of vital importance also for you, I believe that we must determine what the expression "free-will" really stands for.

Free will defined🔗

From a theological perspective, "free-will," is directly related to the doctrine of man, and in particular to the doctrine of man's fall. Already in the fourth century, the British monk Pelagius taught that man was born as a "tabula rasa," or as we would say, as a blank sheet. He believed that man's will was free to choose good, and that sin was the result of imitation. To counter this unscriptural teaching, God graciously raised up Augustine, who clearly established the Biblical doctrine of the total depravity of the human will.What is Free Will?

In the sixteenth century, God used the Reformation to re-establish this doctrine, which at that time again had been corrupted. However, not too long after the Reformation, the Pelagian error concerning the human will was reintroduced in a very subtle manner by the infamous Dutch minister, Arminius. His teaching was subtle and dangerous, as he did not deny that man is a sinful and depraved creature. However, he did deny that man's will is so corrupt that it can no longer respond to God's Word. Arminius believed, and his followers (known as Armenians) believe until this day that, "the will in itself has never been corrupted, but only hindered through the darkness of the understanding and the irregularity of the affections; these hindrances having been removed, the will can then bring into operation its native powers, that is, that the will of itself is able to will and to choose, or not to will and not to choose all manner of good which may be presented to it" (Canons of Dordt, Head III-IV, Error III).

In other words, to teach and preach "free-will" means to teach and preach as Armenians do, namely, to insist that fallen man is capable of deciding whether he wishes to repent and to believe in the Lord Jesus Christ. The bottom line conclusion of all this is, that Armenians or "free-will" advocates, believe that Jesus can only save a sinner, if a sinner decides to cooperate with Jesus, or as they so frequently state, if you will let Jesus come into your heart.

Free grace defined🔗

The doctrines of grace, so beautifully defined in our Canons of Dordt obviously are diametrically opposed to such teaching concerning man and the salvation of sinners. How clearly they teach that apart from the saving, irresistible working of God's Spirit, no sinner will ever respond to Scripture's call to repent and to believe in the Lord Jesus Christ!

However, while stressing the total depravity of man on the one side, the divines of Dordt maintained simultaneously that man, despite his total depravity, is fully responsible before God to respond to His Word. They therefore declared with equal conviction that "the promise of the gospel, together with the command to believe, ought to be declared and published to all persons promiscuously and without distinction, to whom God out of His good pleasure sends the gospel" (Canons, II, 5). "For God hath most earnestly and truly declared in His Word, what will be acceptable to Him (emphasis mine), namely that all who are called, should comply with the invitation" (Canons, III, IV, 8). Who would dare to suggest that the godly authors of the Canons are here guilty of teaching "free-will"? (Please read further articles 10-12 of Head III-IV.) If this would be true, and we would carry such reasoning to its logical conclusion, then Scripture would abound with "free-will" texts. This would mean that God is "free-will" when He proclaims in Ezekiel 33:11: "Turn ye, for why will ye die?" This would mean that Joshua is "free-will" when he states, "Choose you this day whom ye will serve" (Josh. 24:15). This would mean that the Lord Jesus is "free-will" when He begins His ministry by saying, "Repent ye, and believe the gospel" (Mark 1:15). This would mean that Peter is "free-will" when he responds to the anxious question of the multitude by saying, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you" (Acts 2:38). This would mean that Paul is "freewill" when he proclaims to the jailor, "Believe in the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved" (Acts 16:31).What is Free Will?

Obviously this cannot be true! None of these texts imply that fallen man has the natural ability to comply with these exhortations. They do convey very clearly, however, that God in the gospel addresses Himself sincerely and in a most personal manner to every sinner who hears His Word. It conveys beyond the shadow of a doubt that God holds man fully accountable for His Word, which He as Creator is entirely justified in doing. Therefore it is God's express will that this full responsibility, as well as the genuine sincerity of His gospel invitations, be proclaimed by His servants, in order that "every mouth may be stopped and all the world may become guilty before God, for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God" (Rom. 3:19, 23).

My dear young friends, such teaching and preaching is not "free-will," but fully scriptural. Beware, therefore, that you be not guilty of slanderously labeling the writings of our forefathers or the sermons of God's servants as "free-will," when, in true faithfulness to God's will and Word, they proclaim to you, "But God now commandeth all men everywhere to repent" (Acts 17:30b). On the contrary, may this express command of God, proclaimed to you by His messengers, drive you as a helpless sinner to the feet of Jesus Christ, who has been exalted as a Prince and Savior to give repentance and forgiveness of sins (Acts 5:31). Heed, therefore, the earnest exhortation of the Apostle Paul in Philippians 2:12b, 13, "Work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of His good pleasure!"

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